Qodesh

MORE FROM THE LAW OF MOSES

Like Matthew's Gospel the Law of Moses also refers to a man to whom a damsel was betrothed as her "husband", and to the damsel as his "wife" (Deut 22:23 & 24Deut 22:23 & 24 23 ¶If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; 24 Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour’s wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you.). "If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour's wife; so thou shalt put away evil from among you". Both the Old and New Testaments are consistent in calling betrothed couples "husband" and "wife". The Law of Moses required the death of a betrothed "wife" who was unfaithful to her betrothed "husband", but Jesus did not teach such drastic action. Both the Old and New Testaments are consistent in calling betrothed couples "husband" and "wife".The Law of Christ makes only provision for "putting away", or the breaking of the betrothal, as a result of unfaithfulness. As Jesus makes only one exception where putting away one's wife is permissible, this must be it!

It is sometimes argued that, because the word "porneia" is used in 1 Cor 5:11 Cor 5:1 1 It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father’s wife., where a brother had committed misconduct with "his father's wife", then "porneia" must mean adultery. But consider the facts:—

  1. The woman is not referred to as the brother's mother, but as "his father's wife". This suggests that the brother's father had married again, and the woman was, therefore, his step-mother. It would not be incest, as some suggest. We can only speculate about her age, but she may have been much younger than her husband, and nearer to the brother's age than his father's.
  2. The woman was not dealt with as an offender against the Law of Christ. She was not, therefore, a sister in Christ.
  3. The Westminster Dictionary definition of "fornication" (see above) fits the situation perfectly. Although the woman was married and her sin was adultery, if the brother was not, and there is no indication that he was, on his part the sin was premarital misconduct.

There is thus no conflict with this record, and our understanding of Scripture teaching.